sight and negative symptoms, but as a counterpoint, lack of insight has also seen to be associated with positive symptoms and specific delusions. And oddly enough, other scientists have found none of these correlations, thus concluding that lack of insight is an independent part of the process of schizophrenia. Explanations for the cause of lack of insight are just as contradictory. Evidence has been found for neurological causes as shown by some lack of functioning in the frontal lobes of some patients with schizophrenia. However, not all patients have this lack of functioning, and there is evidence that lack of insight is caused by cognitive deficits. There is even other evidence, though, that denies both of these claims in the face of "psychosocial" (Torrey 127) factors. Because there are multiple studies backing up all these conclusions, it is hard to tell which one(s) is (are) correct. Ultimately, more research is needed to support any conclusions. Lack of insight in schizophrenia is a relatively new topic, and most studies on it have been done in the last ten years. A consensus needs to be reached concerning the definition of lack of insight. Are there three main aspects to lack of insight (unawareness of illness, unawareness of symptoms, refusal for treatment) or are there more? Also, the association of lack of insight with schizophrenia has been established, but is lack of insight a symptom or a more fundamental part of the problem of schizophrenia? Does lack of insight correlate with specific symptoms of schizophrenia (just positive or just negative symptoms, or with specific delusions)? Not only does the general nature of lack of insight in schizophrenia need to be researched but the causes of lack of insight need to be researched as well. Which hypothesis is correct? Is lack of insight in schizophrenia caused by neuropsychological deficits, cognitive deficits, some combination of the two, or even by psychosocial f...
