t is based on the very same reasoning; at least it was set out that way in the beginning. We give our power to officials, elected by us, in hopes that they will represent our interests. Our government does not have the power to enslave, destroy, or purposely impoverish us or take away our property without just cause. Sounds a lot like what Locke was trying to say, but the politics of modern-day America are much more complex. Does the “Law of Nature” still exist in modern America? Of course there are examples of laws that represent what anyone would consider the will of God such as murder, rape, theft, and adultery. What about all those other millions of codes, statutes, and ordinances we are forced to adhere to. Should the Government have the authority to impose status offences or speed limits? Going strictly on my readings of Locke’s philosophy on the extent of a legislature’s power I believe I could argue both yes and no. One could say “yes” because speed limits and drinking age limitations help further the public good of the society. One could argue “no” because in a state of Nature a person never had to conform to anything because of his/her age. Locke believed that the legislative, “being but the joint power of every member of the society given up to that person or assembly which is legislator, it can be no more than those persons had in a state of Nature before they entered into society, and gave it up to the community.” (Locke). The complexities of the current United States legislature are abundant. It is hard to simplify its actions into Locke’s perception of what a legislature’s powers are. Has our legislature deviated from its purpose? According to Locke a legislature's purpose being simply the preservation of our society. I wouldn’t say it has deviated from this but I think it has gone further than this. The question is how far shoul...
