imit the power of the federal government, than by letting the State's determine reasonable firearm legislation, regardless of whether, it is the definition of a "well regulated militia," the definition of a firearm, or the age that an Individual can own a firearm. It is the "RIGHT of the STATE," to determine reasonable firearm legislation, with no infringement by the federal government. (constitutional ) The 2nd Amendment also gives the Individual the right to own a gun, as indicated by the words "the people." Thus, not only does the "Bill of Rights" give the power to the States, but the words "the people" in the 1st, 2nd, 4th, 9th, and 10th Amendments implicitly imply a "Individual Right." Futhermore, if the words "the people" in the 2nd Amendment is not an "Individual Right," then what makes the words "the people" in the 1st Amendment (freedom of religion and speech) and individual right? (language) I have just proven for the 3rd time, that the 2nd Amendment is both a "State" and "Individual Right." What more proof do you want! The "State" has a Right to regulate guns from the criminal, but not deny the law abiding citizen reasonable firearm ownership.So what is reasonable firearm ownership? Well, what ever type of firearms that police and swat teamsuse, these same weapons can be owned by Individual Citizens, thus creating equality between the Citizenand the law enforcer. Known as a balance of power. Furthermore the government (state or federal) can not make the firearm owner use "Smart Gun Techology", because it would create an imbalance of power. Do to the ability of government turning off or destroying the Citizens firearm's, via satellite, magnetism, laser orsome other means.My call to Action:Protect your gun rights, join both the National Rifle Association and Texas State Rifle Association. Vote for pro-2nd Amendment candiates.Write your representivities in favor of the 2nd Amendment, and take "Responsibility" for your life, libe...
